Sunday, May 9, 2010

Christ's descent to hell


At the Anglican church I attend, we confess the Apostle's Creed frequently. I love the way it summarizes the faith, but I'm saddened by the way the leaders have adopted the popular alteration of "descended to hell" to "descended to the dead". If we simply confess that, "He was crucified, died, and was buried. He descended to the dead," we have hardly touched Christ's wrath-bearing sacrifice. Our penalty is far greater than physical death - it is spiritual death. In a day when penal substitution is being called into question, it seems like confessing Christ's descent to hell (and teaching the congregation what it means!) would be a great way to protect the flock from heresy.


Here are Calvin's responses to those that want to remove the phrase

Question: Should we remove the phrase?
If any persons have scruples about admitting this article into the Creed, it will soon be made plain how important it is to the sum of our redemption: if it is left out, much of the benefit of Christ's death will be lost. [II.16.8]
Objection: But the phrase isn't original!
...in setting forth a summary of doctrine a place must be given to it, as it contains the useful and not-to-be-despised mystery of a most important matter. At least some of the old writers do not leave it out. From this we may conjecture that it was inserted after a time, and did not become customary in the churches at once, but gradually. This much is certain: that it reflected the common belief of all the godly; for there is no one of the fathers who does not mention in his writings Christ's descent into hell, through their interpretations vary. But it matters little by whom or at what time this clause was inserted. Rather, the noteworthy point about the Creed is this: we have in it a summary of our faith, full and complete in all details; and containing nothing in it except what has been derived from the pure Word of God. [II.16.8]
Objection: It's unimportant, because it just repeats the idea of burial.
I grant that what they put forward concerning the meaning of the word is true: "hell" is frequently to be understood as "grave." But two reasons militate against their opinion, and readily persuade me to disagree with them. How careless it would have been, when something not at all difficult in itself has been stated with clear and easy words, to indicate it again in words that obscure rather than clarify it! ...Secondly, it is not likely that a useless repetition of this sort could have crept into this summary, in which the chief points of our faith are aptly noted in the fewest possible words. [II.16.8]
Question: OK, so what does "descended to hell" mean?
The explanation given to us in God's Word is not only holy and pious, but also full of wonderful consolation. If Christ had died only a bodily death, it would have been ineffectual. No - it was expedient at the same time for him to undergo the severity of Gods' vengeance, to appease his wrath and satisfy his just judgment. For this reason, he must also grapple hand to hand with the armies of hell and the dread of everlasting death. [II.16.10]
Calvin's biblical justification for this phrase is simply the fact that Christ bore God's wrath. Christ's death was not a merely physical thing ['crucified, died, and was buried"] but included the anger of God, which is His descent into hell.

Objection: But why is "descended to hell" recorded after "burial" if it actually preceded it?
Those who - on the ground that it is absurd to put after his burial what preceded it - say that the order is reversed in this way are making a very trifling and ridiculous objection. The point is that the Creed sets forth what Christ suffered in the sight of men, and then appositely speaks of that invisible and incomprehensible judgment which he underwent in the sight of God in order that we might know not only that Christ's body was given as the price of our redemption, but that he paid a greater and more excellent price in suffering in his soul the terrible torments of a condemned and forsaken man.
If you're interested in thinking about this further, then pick up a copy of Daniel Hyde's "In Defense of the Descent". It was just released and looks like a brilliant book. I've read the manuscript that he wrote prior to the book and found it to be very helpful. I can't wait to pick it up myself.

9 comments:

Nick said...

I believe there is more than abundant evidence against Penal Substitution, but appealing to the Apostle's Creed here doesn't help either. The fact this line of the Creed is the closest anyone can come to Scriptura proof of Christ undergoing the Father's wrath is telling in itself.

To suggest Christ suffered "spiritual death" (and the Father's Wrath) in place of others is a heresy far worse than the problem you're attempting to fix in the first place. Jesus is God, He cannot experience "spiritual death" without ceasing to be Divine.

The 'hell' referred to here is HADES, which isn't hellfire!

PostTenebrasLux said...

Nick,
Plenty has been written to defend the biblical doctrine of penal substitution. Read "Pierced for our Transgressions" for a start. I'm not referring to the Apostle's Creed for my ultimate support in this doctrine. I simply stated that it would be a useful teaching opportunity.

Jesus can experience "spiritual death" and remain divine. He's a Person that took on a second nature in the Incarnation. I'm not claiming that His divine nature was under the Father's wrath (you can see an earlier post quoting Calvin on Christ's two natures). His manhood bore God's wrath to pay the condemnation that man deserves. As the Second Adam, Christ both obeyed the law's positive commands (loving God and neighbor) and bore the law's curse.

Nick said...

Hi,

I've read Pierced for Our Transgressions, but unfortunately it too often assumes what it's trying to prove. This is especially true in the Scriptural texts it addresses. The fact there are no texts coming close to conveying the notion the Father vented His Wrath on Christ is a point that cannot be downplayed.

As for Jesus experiencing spiritual-death, to experience that means by *definition* one is cut off from God spiritually. This is impossible for Christ.

PostTenebrasLux said...

HI Nick
I welcome your thoughts on this.

I'm surprised that you didn't find Pierced for our Transgressions to be persuasive.

Could you give me your thoughts on what I mentioned about Christ's two natures, i.e., if you distinguish between Christ's two natures (what we see in the Calvin quotes), don't you think you could conceive of Christ being spiritually separated from the Father - in His human nature (not His divine nature)?

How do you interpret passages from Isa. 53 that say (ESV):
v. 6 "the Lord has laid on him the iniquity of us all"
v. 10 "Yet it was the will of the Lord to crush him; he has put him to grief; when his soul makes an offering for sin, he shall see his offspring; he shall prolong his days; the will of the Lord shall prosper in his hand" ?

I think you'll agree that this much is straightforward:
- The Lord places sin on the servant.
- The servant becomes an offering for sin.
- The Lord puts him to grief.
- The Lord rewards the servant with "prolonged days" and "prosperity".

Nick said...

Hi,

You asked about my thoughts on Christ's two natures, especially in relation to the human nature undergoing separation.

Proper Christology teaches Jesus is the Second Divine Person of the Trinity, and fully possesses the Divine Nature. At His Incarnation, the Second Divine Person forever assumed human nature, but not a human person.

Everything Jesus did in His Humanity was the operation of a Divine Person, thus when Jesus ate, slept, bled, etc, it is (only) proper to say "God (the Son) ate, slept, bled, etc."

Thus, when Jesus was undergoing the Father's Wrath (according to Protestants), it couldn't be anything short of the Person of God the Son undergoing this (even if only His humanity was capable of experiencing it).

A soul that is abandoned (to hell) is not united to God, and thus for Jesus to experience this would mean His very own soul was not united to His Person! Impossible, unless one falls into the error of Nestorius who said Christ was a human and divine person. So if Jesus was abandon by His Father on the Cross: WHO (speaking of *personhood*) was on the cross experiencing the agony? The only options are the Divine Person, the Logos, or a new human person (according to Nestorius).

As for how I interpret Isaiah 53, I just posted a short post on my blog addressing this issue.

I'd be happy to (try to) clarify, if need be.

PostTenebrasLux said...

Hi Nick,
Thanks for your last comment. I think that really clarified the matter for me. I’m glad to see that your Christology is within the bounds of Chalcedon.

I think our main point of departure in this is what we mean by the phrase “separation from God”. Please, correct me if I’m wrong, but I believe you’re conceiving of things in terms of “union with God” and “the lack of union with God”. In other words, when man is attached to God, he has spiritual life, and when man that union is severed, he is in hell. Could you direct me to some further reading on the Roman understanding of “union to God”? And how do you view ‘the wicked’ prior to the Final Judgment, i.e., do they lack union with God?

I agree that penal substitution would be problematic if the Reformed were approaching the atonement from that perspective. There would be a big question mark on the perpetuity of the hypostatic union, as you pointed out. But when I say “separation from God” or "abandonment", what I mean is “separation from God’s blessing”. Rather than conceiving of things in terms of union or the lack thereof, I’m viewing man as existing in one of two forensic states. We are either in a state where we receive His blessing or in a state where we receive His curse (wrath).

From the Reformed perspective, this means that the hypostatic union remains intact throughout the time when Christ was bearing the wrath of God in both body and soul and when He was in the grave. God’s curse/wrath did not mean a rupture of that union. It meant that Christ, having been credited with the sin of His Church, was absorbing the wrath that they were due, and “there is now no condemnation for those that are in Christ Jesus”.

I haven’t gotten the chance to read your post on Isaiah 53 with sufficient care. I’ll do so soon, though.

Nick said...

Hi,

Yes, that is an important thing to focus upon. I'd say the simplest way to explain this is from the realization we are "Temples of the Holy Spirit" (as Paul says), and that this entails a very real super-natural Union with the Trinity. This goes along with all the other references to Christ dwelling in our hearts and such. Romans 8 is a good chapter in this regard because it says if anyone lacks the Spirit of Adoption they have no part with Him.

At the Final Judgment, the ultimate deciding factor for whether one enters Heaven or Hell is if one has this Union with the Trinity, which Catholics call 'sanctifying grace' in our soul.

The separation from God is not merely forensic, but very ontological, just as the punishments are very real and not 'forensic'. Even if you don't intend to cause rupture with the Hypostatic Union, that's the immediate consequence of saying Christ's humanity was subjected to God's wrath, because a soul experiencing God's wrath is at it's core not in union with God.

PostTenebrasLux said...

Hi Nick

Sorry I haven't replied until now.

You wrote: "a soul experiencing God's wrath is at it's core not in union with God."
Let's run with your views on union for now. I wonder if your understanding of the Reformed perspective on substitution includes what follows, and I wonder if this would change your judgment of it:
"Eternal death in the case of Christ did not consist in an abrogation of the union of the Logos with the human nature, nor in the divine nature's being forsaken of God, nor in the withdrawal of the Father's divine love or good pleasure from the person of the Mediator. The Logos remained united with the human nature even when the body was in the grave; the divine nature could not possibly be forsaken of God; and the person of the Mediator was and ever continued to be the object of divine favor. It revealed itself in the human consciousness of the Mediator as a feeling of God-forsakenness. This implies that the human nature for a moment missed the conscious comfort which it might derive from its union with the divine Logos, and the sense of divine love, and was painfully conscious of the fulness of the divine wrath which was bearing down upon it." [Berkhof, Syst. Theology, Eerdmans, p. 339]

Just to highlight it: Berkhof explicitly states that the Person of the Mediator (which must include the human nature of Christ), remains the object of divine favor. This is clear, because He is obeying the Father's will - He is completing His obedience to the Law! The Mediator consciously experiences hell, yet the fact that He subjected Himself to God's wrath willingly is simultaneously pleasing to God.

I quote Berkhof because his dogmatics are probably the most widely accepted in the Reformed/Presbyterian churches. He didn't come up with new ideas but systematized old, widely accepted ones.

Thoughts?

Nick said...

That is a good quote because he clearly sees the difficulty - though I don't think he solves the problem, for Berkhof's "solution" is really trying to mutually hold two conflicting positions.

On one hand, he's saying that Christ didn't experience Divine Wrath at all! Christ was not in fact experiencing "spiritual death," according to this quote.
On the other hand, he says Christ experienced "eternal death" (i.e. "Eternal death in the case of Christ" and "the divine wrath which was bearing down upon it").

To say Christ experienced eternal death in a special sense is already Berkhof introducing his own personal definition into the picture, reading much more into the whole thing than Scripture warrants. And to say Christ 'felt' forsaken without actually being forsaken is still a sort of Nestorianism for The Divine Person cannot experience such a feeling through His humanity.